[B-Greek] Question about Strong's #3709
res90sx5 at verizon.net
Fri Sep 16 19:30:50 EDT 2005
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On
> Behalf Of RAY MARTINEZ
> Sent: Friday, September 16, 2005 4:19 PM
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [B-Greek] Question about Strong's #3709
> Hi Everyone:
> I am in the midst of writing an article about Romans 1:17-25 and the only bit of Greek
> grammar that I need to incorporate into the article is what "orge"/wrath is in the
> According to Dr. Gene Scott Ph.D. Stanford University, [oral teaching, January 2001]
> "orge" is a "present tense verb", HOWEVER the paper attachment 'hand-out' by Dr.
> Scott to everyone present at the lecture indicates the word in question is "N-NF-S"
> (whatever that means).
> Question: Did Dr. Scott mis-speak or what ?
> PLEASE someone tell me about orge and what it is in the grammar and try to rectify it
> against what Dr. Scott said.
> Thank you for your consideration.
> Ray Martinez
The handout is correct. N-NF-S means Noun, Nominative case, Feminine grammatical gender, Singular. It is definitely not a verb.
Hope this is helpful,
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