[B-Greek] AUQENTEIN ANDROS

drs. Gert M. Knepper en/of Mirjam Schaap knepperschaap at planet.nl
Mon Oct 3 04:16:04 EDT 2005


On Mon, 03 Oct 2005 03:11:54 +1300 "greg coupe"
<gregorycoupe at hotmail.com> writes:
> I don't understand why "authentein andros" (AUQENTEIN ANDROS) cannot 
> be 
> translated "to be exercising male authority."
> Authentein (AUQENTEIN) means "to be self (auto)-working (hentes)" 
> which 
> basically means "to be exercising authority."
> Andros means "of man." So the words "AUQENTEIN ANDROS" means "to be 
> self 
> working of man" or "to be exercising authority of man." I understand 
> that 
> this can be translated "to be exercising authority OVER man" but why 
> is it 
> impossible to translate it "to be exercising male authority" i.e "to 
> be 
> exercising the authority which belongs to man, which he has the job 
> of 
> exercising." For example, if Paul considered teaching in church to 
> be a job 
> reserved for male's he might say that a woman who was teaching in 
> church was 
> "exercising male authority." Please explain why the translation "to 
> be 
> exercising male authority" is an impossible translation.

Greg, I think where you go wrong is here: ANDROS does not mean "of man", as you suggest, but "of man" is just a translation of the Greek word ANDROS, that may or may not be correct, dependent on the grammatical context. If the writer of 1 Tim. (who probably wasn't Paul, but that's of no importance here) would have wanted to say "to exercise male authority" , Greek grammar would not have permitted him to use a genitive, but instead he would have written something like hWS ANHR (as a male) or ANDRIKWS (in a male way).

Gert M. Knepper drs. litt. class. 
Weidelaan 31
3956 EH Leersum
The Netherlands

tel. 0343 45 66 95
e-mail: Knepperschaap at planet.nl



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