[B-Greek] Jn 12:44
webb at selftest.net
Wed Nov 16 17:11:43 EST 2005
I'd say that NIV supplies something that is implicitly present in
the statement conceptually, rather than implicitly present "in the Greek" as
such. NIV translators--with justification--understand that Jesus is not
saying, "The person who thinks they're believing in me is mistaken--they're
really believing in the one who sent me". Thus, it's because of Jesus'
statements elsewhere in John's Gospel calling on people to believe in
him--not because of principles of Greek grammar--that the NIV translators
insert the word "only".
For example, John could conceivably say something like, hO PISTEUWN
EIS QEON KAI MISWN TON ADELFON AUTOU OU PISTEUEI EIS QEON ALLA EIS TON
In that case, you wouldn't put the word "only" in there, because
it's neither implied grammatically nor conceptually. But the grammatical
form is equivalent to the passage in John 12.
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Scott Wells
Sent: Wednesday, November 16, 2005 12:43 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Jn 12:44
IHSOUS DE EKRAXEN KAI EIPEN hO PISTEUWN EIS EME OU PISTEUEI EIS ALLA EIS TON
PEMYANTA ME John 12:44
The NIV inserts "only" in their rendering of this text (Then Jesus cried
out, "When a man believes in me, he does not believe in me only, but in the
one who sent me.). I can see why one might want to do this for theological
reasons, but I don't see any textual justification for it. Is this a
legitimate way of rendering the text?
scott.alton.wells at us.army.mil
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