[B-Greek] 1Cor1:17 and 1Cor15:1; Question about def. articles
steelcurtain40 at yahoo.com
Tue Nov 15 16:35:33 EST 2005
I just wanted to ask some of you(as someone who can just read the greek) why the phrase in 1 Cor 1:17 is translated to english as ". . .but to preach the gospel." ? IN the greek this is one word and literally reads, BAPTISEIN ALLA EUAGGELIESASQE. In 1 Cor 15:1 the text seems to be saying the same phrase but here there is a def. article used before "the gospel'': TO EUAGGELION. . .. So, why is there a def. article in our english in1 Cor 1:17?? Couldn't we possibly better render 1 Cor 1:17 into english as, ". . .not to baptize but to evangelize/tell good news." ??
I also would like to know from some of you of other words in the greek NT where there is only one greek word from the text but must break down into more than one in our english translation with the definite article used.
May seem like a "kindergardner's greek" question but any of you that can give me some input will greatly be appreciated.
Metro Atlanta, GA
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