clarearnold at hotmail.com
Thu Nov 3 17:32:07 EST 2005
I like the translation of 1 John 2:22 Kelton Graham wrote:
"Who is the liar, if not the one who denies that Jesus is the Messiah?"
This translation conveys the ambiguity I see in the Greek.
The obvious meaning is that the liar is a person who says that Jesus is not
However the ambiguity appears when "it is" is added: "Who is the liar, if
(it is) not the one who denies etc.
Verse 23 answers the question by saying that the liar is the one who denies
not only Jesus but also the Father.
Am I right that such an ambiguity could be present?
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