[B-Greek] 1 John 2:22

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Wed Nov 2 07:59:54 EST 2005

@Clare Arnold

I think you could get away with that translation, since I think that is the basic idea behind the passage.  However, I would take hO APOUMENOS as a substantive meaning " the one who denies."  And just drop off the second negative OUK.

Who is the liar, if not the one who denies that Jesus is the Messiah.  I personally think that would be the best translation.

Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 

> Thank you to everyone for your help with 1 John 2 :22. Living in Australia, 
> I was asleep when the discussion took place! I've considered all the 
> replies and now have another question. 
> If we look at this verse only grammatically, without any theological 
> assumptions, could the verse be translated as: 
> "Who is the liar if it is not the one who makes this denial: 'Jesus is not 
> the Christ'?" 
> Cheers, 
> Clare Arnold 
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