[B-Greek] KEIMENH Matt 5:14
jtauber at jtauber.com
Wed Nov 2 04:07:22 EST 2005
On 01/11/2005, at 6:20 AM, Mitch Larramore wrote:
> This may be a ridiculous question, but I've read more
> than once an explanation similar to the one you've
> given here and really have never understood the behind
> the scenes workings of such a phenomenon. Why would a
> particular verb act as the Passive of a different
> verb? Did this happen with the combining of the
> various dialects into KOINH? I believe I've even read
> something similar to that with OIDA and one of its
> tense functions. Is this answerable in a venue such as this?
The general phenomenon is called suppletion and it occurs in many
languages, including English.
For example, "went" is used as the past tense of "go".
"better/best" are used as the comparative/superlative of "good".
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