[B-Greek] verbless sentences - semantic force?
dirkzwager at pandora.be
Wed Feb 23 03:07:55 EST 2005
Dear professor Conrad,
Being subjective you are in good company. Wilamowitz saw Chrysostomus as a
puristic atticist (writing a smooth style), whereas Norden thought he was an
asianist (using bombastic stilistic tricks).
I understand that in your opinion there was a semitic influence in the
writings of Paul. So you can see the use of "to be" as an exception. Am I
Dr. A. Dirkzwager
e-mail dirkzwager at pandora.be
----- Oorspronkelijk bericht -----
Van: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
Aan: "A. Dirkzwager" <dirkzwager at pandora.be>
CC: "Eric Weiss" <papaweiss1 at yahoo.com>; "b-greek"
<b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Verzonden: dinsdag 22 februari 2005 20:22
Onderwerp: Re: [B-Greek] verbless sentences - semantic force?
> At 4:22 PM +0100 2/22/05, A. Dirkzwager wrote:
> >I think the question cannot be answered only from the Greek point of
> >As Paul was a Jew we have to count with Semitic patterns in his Greek.
> >Semitic languages there is no verb "to be" with a predicate.
> >For the rest it will be in my opinion a question of (subjective)
> >appreciation of the stilistic force of sentences like TALAIPWROS EGW
> Well, subjective it may be, but in my opinion the clauses will more likely
> be emphatic when the copula IS expressed than when they are omitted, as is
> the more standard construction.
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