[B-Greek] verbless sentences - semantic force?
dirkzwager at pandora.be
Tue Feb 22 10:22:46 EST 2005
I think the question cannot be answered only from the Greek point of view.
As Paul was a Jew we have to count with Semitic patterns in his Greek. In
Semitic languages there is no verb "to be" with a predicate.
For the rest it will be in my opinion a question of (subjective)
appreciation of the stilistic force of sentences like TALAIPWROS EGW
Dr. A. Dirkzwager
e-mail dirkzwager at pandora.be
----- Oorspronkelijk bericht -----
Van: "Eric Weiss" <papaweiss1 at yahoo.com>
Aan: "b-greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Verzonden: dinsdag 22 februari 2005 14:12
Onderwerp: [B-Greek] verbless sentences - semantic force?
> Is there greater semantic force to verbless sentences than if the
> were to have the understood verb? I'm thinking offhand of Romans 7:24a -
> TALAIPWROS EGW ANQRWPOS and Romans 8:1 OUDEN ARA
> KATAKRIMA TOIS EN CRISTWi IHSOU.
> How about sentences that have adjectival participles but no finite verbs -
> 2 Cor. 1:21 - hO DE BEBAIWN hHMAS SUN hUMIN EIS CRISTON KAI
> KRISAS hHMAS QEOS, hO KAI SFRAGISAMENOS hHMAS KAI DOUS
> TON ARRABWNA TOU PNEUMATOS EN TAIS KARDIAIS hHMWN?
> Or is this omission of finite verbs simply stylistic and has no different
> semantic force than the same sentence would if it had finite verbs?
> Eric S. Weiss
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