[B-Greek] 1 John 1:5
shelterpro at msn.com
Tue Feb 15 15:31:21 EST 2005
Two very important grammatical markers within this text help us to make
decisions about its "literalness", both revolving around the semantic
implications of the subject-predicate nominative relationship.
1. FWS is an anarthrous pre-verbal predicate nominative... Research has
shown that these are usually qualitative, not definite. So the verse is more
than likely speaking about a quality of O QEOS not identifying O QEOS.
2. Further support for the qualitative idea is provided by the fact that
within this particular subject-predicate nominative construction, only the
subject, O QEOS, is articular and the predicate nominative, FWS, is not a
pronoun nor is it a proper name. Whenever this happens, the relationship
expressed is a type of subset relationship with the predicate nominative
being the general term, or metaphor and the subject expressing a type,
clarification, or meaning of the general term. In this way, what is being
expressed is not a mathematical truth O QEOS = FWS; FWS= O QEOS, but a way
of perceiving, and presenting the qualities, nature of O QEOS.
Sheldon R. Bryan
>Question Part 1
>1 John 1:5 says that God is light, O QEOS FWS ESTIN.
>What aspect of this verse can be understood as literal, if any? To what
>degree is the metaphor based upon the literal? Or must it be understood
>Charles D. Rempel
>30 Year Student
>B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
>B-Greek mailing list
>B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
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