[B-Greek] Ephesians 2:20 - What kind of Genitive construction?
rngrogers at mybluelight.com
Tue Feb 8 10:29:13 EST 2005
Kelton and Carl,
Looking at this a little closer after Kelton Graham's post I feel that
everyone is right, including Mr. Wallace, except me. Well, maybe I was only
half wrong. I was reading Wallace' comments on p 98 in his foot note #69 and
thought he was referring to AUTOU IHSOU CRISTOU as being in apposition which
he evidently was not. Later Wallace does list Eph 2:20 as a Genitive
Absolute on p 655 under Rom 7:3).
Bottom line, Kelton and Mr. Wallace were right in that Wallace is referring
to TWi QEMELIWi to be in apposition to APOSTOLWN KAI PROFHTWN, Carl was
right in identifying ONTOS AKROGWNIAIOU AUTOU IHSOU CRISTOU as a Genitive
Absolute and I was at least right in seeing this also as a Genitive
Absolute. I was wrong in misquoting Mr. Wallace. Sorry.
Thanks Kelton and Carl.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
To: <kgraham0938 at comcast.net>
Cc: <B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, February 08, 2005 5:32 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Ephesians 2:20 - What kind of Genitive construction?
> At 3:21 AM +0000 2/8/05, kgraham0938 at comcast.net wrote:
> >I think Wallace is refering to TWi QEMELIWi to be in apposition to
> >APOSTOLWN KAI PROFHTWN.
> >So on pg 100 of his grammer, I think he is saying that the foundation
> >which is the apostles and prophets.
> >I don't think he is refering to OVTOS AKROGWNIAIOU AUTOU at all.
> That may be what he thinks, but the otherwise superfluous
> genitiveparticiple ONTOS and the intensive pronoun AUTOU still lead me to
> think that the construction is a genitive absolute.
> >> I probably have not given this enough consideration myself but I'd
> >> appreciate the comments the list might have on the Genitive
> >> Ephesians 2:20. I always considered ONTOS AKROGWNIAIOU AUTOU IHSOU
> >> Genitive Absolute, "a noun and pronoun in the Genitive with a Genitive
> >> participle" (Machen #266). I see a straight forward translation as,
> >>"being (the)
> >> extreme corner Himself Jesus Christ".
> >> If I'm not misunderstanding, Wallace seems to see this construction as
> >> Genitive of Apposition. I guess I'm not seeing #1 which construction it
> >>is and
> >> #2 what the difference is. In situations like this do theological
> >> presuppositions play more of a part in ones' translation? Anyway, it
> >>seems to me
> >> that if I can't determine the grammar how can I be sure what the
> >>translation is,
> >> even though it seems straight forward in this case?
> >> Ephesians 2:20
> >> EPOIKODOMHQENTES EPI TW QEMELIW TWN APOSTOLWN KAI PROFHTWN ONTOS
> >> AUTOU IHSOU CRISTOU
> >> Thanks,
> >> rod rogers
> >> bargersville, in
> >> Ps. Sorry for the previous post.
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