Fw: [B-Greek] John 8:58 PPA???
beb at tolstoy.freeserve.co.uk
Thu Feb 3 02:42:14 EST 2005
As has been pointed out, this topic, that is, how an English NT translation
has rendered EGO EIMI at John 8.58 is beyond this lists purpose then may I
conclude by saying that I would advise you to locate a 1950 edition of this
version and read the footnote for yourself. The expression "perfect
indefinite tense" refers the the "render[ing]" _not_ to the Greek.
----- Original Message -----
From: <MAKARIOIOIPRAEIS at aol.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, February 03, 2005 6:15 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] John 8:58 PPA???
> Dear Rebecca,
> I came across two quotes by that seems to say that the NWT did intend to
> define the Greek John 5:58 EGO EIMI to mean 'an event of past time'
> "The Greek has a tense which is not found in the English: that tense which
> denotes action which began in the past and is still in progress. This
> tense is
> stated in the present tense and should be translated or rendered in the
> perfect or as some still say the past tense. The above translations of
> 8:58 are examples of this."
> Nelson Herle A letter to Walter R. Martin, April 2, 1978
> "Whether one calls the tense the "perfect," "perfect indefinite," or
> tense indicative," all mean basically the same thing, "an event of past
> time." The terms "perfect" and "perfect tense indicative" are more common
> than "the
> perfect tense indefinite" and have been used in more recent editions of
> NWT for the sake of using a more common term, not a more correct one."
> Nelson Herle, The Trinity Doctrine, p50, 1983
> Richard Windisch
> Dear Richard,
> Not so...the words "perfect indefinite tense" were NOT referring to the
> Greek EGO EIMI but the _English rendering_ "I have been" found in the NWT!
> Rebecca Barnard
> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
> B-Greek mailing list
> B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
More information about the B-Greek