[B-Greek] question about Matthew 17:5
ialarsen at multitechweb.com
Thu Feb 3 01:54:49 EST 2005
> I am finding a number of arguments concerning eudokhsa in Matthew 17:5
> (Matthew 3:17, etc.). The argument is that the aorist in this text is a
> "punctiliar" aorist used for the punctiliar sense of the present tense.
Doesn't make sense to me.
> Is anyone else troubled by this use of eudokhsa, or is there LXX
> precedent for this use?
> Does the punctiliar argument really resolve the theological question? I
> mean, does it significantly shift the dialogue to have the voice
> say "in whom I am pleased at this moment?"
> If anyone has any thoughts, I would appreciate them.
> Dr. M. Aymer
> Assistant Prof of NT
> The Interdenominational Theological Center
I think your problem is mainly caused by how this is translated into
English. If one uses "be pleased with", the present tense is natural in
English. But "be pleased with" is generally a rather poor and misleading
translation of this verb. If one uses "accept", it would be natural to say
"I have accepted him" or "whom I have accepted/approved of". It is a past
action with continuing results. EUDOKEW basically means "consider
something/someone as being good" or "accept someone as fully measuring up to
an expected standard." Quite often the semantic content and classification
of a verb determines the appropriate tenses to use.
Of the 21 examples of this verb in the GNT, only one is in the present
tense, and that instance is best rendered by future in English, at least if
"be pleased with" is used:
Heb 10:38b but if any of them turns back, I will not be pleased with them.
An alternative translation would be: "All those that turn back are not
acceptable to me" or "I cannot accept anyone who turns back."
More information about the B-Greek