[B-Greek] question about Matthew 17:5

MPAymerNYC at aol.com MPAymerNYC at aol.com
Wed Feb 2 16:34:20 EST 2005

I am finding a number of arguments concerning eudokhsa in Matthew 17:5 
(Matthew 3:17, etc.).  The argument is that the aorist in this text is a 
"punctiliar" aorist used for the punctiliar sense of the present tense.

Is anyone else troubled by this use of eudokhsa, or is there LXX precedent 
for this use?

Does the punctiliar argument really resolve the theological question?  I 
mean, does it significantly shift the dialogue to have the voice say "in whom I am 
pleased at this moment?"

If anyone has any thoughts, I would appreciate them.

Dr. M. Aymer
Assistant Prof of NT
The Interdenominational Theological Center

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