Jeffrey B. Gibson
jgibson000 at comcast.net
Thu May 20 16:20:56 EDT 2004
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Jeffrey B. Gibson" <jgibson000 at comcast.net>
> To: "b-greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Thursday, May 20, 2004 3:03 PM
> Subject: [B-Greek] PARADIDWMI
> > I note with interest that a recent author of a book on Judas seems to
> > claim that the verb PARADIDWMI was never used with the sense of "betray"
> > and therefore that translations of, say, 1 Cor 15:24 in which Paul is
> > made to speak of Jesus' "betrayal", rather than his being "handed over"
> > are wrong.
The author in question is William Klassen and his claim is apparently made in his
book on Judas. I say apparently because I haven't read the book my self. But the
claim is posted by Klassen as the central thesis of his book on the blurb about his
book that appears on his webpage.
And Danker seems to take him seriously. See the entry in BDAG under PARADIDWMI.
> > And yet I see that LSJ notes that "betray" is indeed one of the senses
> > with which PARADIDOMI was used. So does Spicq.
> > So who is correct in this? Are there indeed instances in Hellenistic
> > literature where PARADIDWMI clearly means "betray"?
> It's hard to say without evaluating the specific arguments. Does the author
> deal directly with the citations from the lexical sources which claim that the
> word does mean betray? How is the evidence from the NT presented?
> Just offhand, it sounds as though he/she might have a theological, rather than a
> semantical agenda...
> N.E. Barry Hofstetter
> Professor of Theological and Biblical Studies
> The Center for Urban Theological Studies
> Philadelphia, PA
> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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> B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Jeffrey B. Gibson
e-mail jgibson000 at comcast.net
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