[B-Greek] Matthew 26:29 and TOUTOU TOU
iver_larsen at sil.org
Mon Jan 26 10:04:57 EST 2004
> Dear B-Greek Members:
> I have noticed a tendency in some modern translations to
> translate TOUTOU TOU
> as "any" (thus translating the first part of Matthew 26:29 as "I
> shall not drink any wine
> till I drink it with you anew...), based on the assumption that
> it is a so-called Latinate
> use of the Greek (if my terminology is not mistaken). Could
> anyone explain this idea
> of a "Latinate use" of the Greek with regard to TOUTOU TOU to me?
> I find it somewhat
> confusing, and cannot understand why TOUTOU TOU is not translated
> as "this" in all translations of this passage.
The majority of modern translations keep the word "this".
First, I would say that the TOUTO in v. 26 and 28 are simply deictic
references to "bread" and "cup" and they need to be translated by "this" in
English to refer to what he has in his hand at that moment.
The TOUTOU in v. 29 is fronted before the noun it modifies and this
signifies a contrast between the present wine that they are drinking then
and the new wine to come in the future kingdom - hOTAN AUTO PINW MEQ' hUMWN
KAINON EN THi BASILEIAi TOU PATROS MOU.
The word "this" is not absolutely necessary in English because the contrast
between the normal and the new wine is indicated by the following words as
quoted above. If "this" is retained, which is my preference, I might suggest
"From now on I shall no longer drink this kind of wine, but one day I shall
drink it in a new form together with you in my Father's kingdom."
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