[B-Greek] IOUDAIOS and metonymy
reznik1 at juno.com
Sun Feb 1 19:24:15 EST 2004
OK, I see my examples didn't work. Let me formulate my approach in this
Let's agree that saying "IOUDAIOI" John means not all Jews or all
Judeans, but some particular bad guys. You say he uses metonymy. It is
OK. But the question is whether he with his metonymy calls those bad guys
Jews or Judeans? I want to filter out all other details like how to
translate this word into English. So I believe that John to identify the
bad guys uses that Greek work IOUDAIOS with meaning Judeans and not Jews.
I just see it much more probable for him as for a Jew, and I believe my
examples from the Gospel support it. You may not be convinced with my
arguments, but can you prove then that John calls the Jewish authorities
Jews and not Judeans (using metonymy or anything else)? Because I don't
think in his mind this word had both meanings at the same time.
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