[B-Greek] John 20:28-29 - Defending against Arianism
g_gunter at yahoo.com
Fri Aug 20 13:13:26 EDT 2004
I've been dealing with a person who does not hold to the deity of
Christ and when I show him John 20:28-29 to show how Thomas had
referred to Christ specifically as "My Lord and my God" he wants to
side-step that by trying to claim that, based on the Greek text, Thomas
is doing nothing more than proclaiming to God as his witness that Jesus
did, in fact, arise from the dead...nothing more.
Now, I know that that is a ridiculous interpretation and I don't need
to know greek to know that but since I routinely get on to some of
these guys (who wouldn't know greek from sanskrit) for trying to be
little greek scholars by taking Stong's concordance out for every other
word in the text, I would be grateful if some of you could provide me
with your educated opinions on the Greek text here and why,
grammatically, Thomas is referring to Christ as both Lord and God? More
specifically, please explain why, based on the greek text, Thomas is
referring to Jesus Christ directly as Lord and God?
A majority of unproductive argumentation could be elliminated
if the participants could remember one thing: If you are going
to disagree with a person's opinion you should at least be able
to state that person's opinion to his satisfaction.
-- Gregorious Maximus
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