mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Thu Oct 31 18:49:37 EST 2002
The book that I am reading is called Basics of
Biblical Greek by William D. Mounce.
He says on page 46 about the expression "Karin threw
to Brad a ball" (In this sentence he says "to Brad" is
the Indirect Object.)
In English when the word "to" is used, it would go
after the direct object. "Karin threw the ball to
Brad." But now "to Brad" is not the indirect object
but a prepositional phrase.
I do not know why "to Brad" no longer fills the slot
of Indirect Object. Why?
Spring Branch, Texas
Student/Memorial High School
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