keitht at kneptune.demon.co.uk
Mon Mar 26 10:35:06 EST 2001
Can I assume from the lack of responses that people agree with my view
that hHTIS ESTIN does not refer to TAIS QLIYESIN? I realise that the
grammar in the New Testament is not always perfect, for example I'm
translating the book of James and I came across James 3:4
(IDOU), KAI TA PLOIA ... METAGETAI hUPO ELACISTOU PHDALIOU ...
where singular METAGETAI refers to plural PLOIA. But do people reckon
that most translations have got it wrong at Ephesians 3:13? I notice the
AV has 'which is' and the RV has 'which are', is there perhaps a
difference in the texts they used?
Keith (Manchester, UK)
Email: keitht at kneptune.demon.co.uk
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