theos and ho theos'--
dixonps at juno.com
dixonps at juno.com
Fri Mar 2 23:15:10 EST 2001
On Fri, 2 Mar 2001 18:45:58 EST GregStffrd at aol.com writes:
> In a message dated 03/02/2001 7:18:00 AM Pacific Standard Time,
> dixonps at juno.com writes:
> I am assuming an anarthrous predicate nominative has a particular
> nuance in the mind of the author, one and only one of the following:
> definiteness, indefiniteness, or qualitativeness. >>
> Dear Paul:
> Why do you assume the above, and where did you come up
> with a category such as "qualitativeness" that excludes any
> notion of definiteness or indefiniteness?
I did get your email the first time, but was busy with pastoral duties
and am just now free to get back to you. This whole notion that a noun
can have two or more simultaneous nuances as used in a particular is
rather like saying a word can have two or more simultaneous meanings when
used in a particular context. There is no question that a word can have
two or more meanings, but when it is actually used by an author it almost
always has a particular meaning, unless he is intentionally employing a
double entendre (perhaps like KEFALHN in 1 Cor 11:5). Likewise, we can
assume an author has a particular nuance of a noun being used and is not
intentionally being ambiguous so as to confuse the reader.
Take the anarthrous SARX in Jn 1:14. Is the author saying two things
about the noun: the Word became the flesh and flesh; a flesh and flesh;
or a flesh and the flesh? No, he is trying to communicate one or the
other, but not both. Probably the force is qualitative: the Word became
flesh, that is, He acquired humanity This, by the way, is probably meant
to be contrast to 1:1c where EN ARCHi the Word was QEOS. You wouldn't
want to suggest, would you, that SARX in 1:14 is both qualitative and
indefinite (the Word became flesh/a flesh)?
Again, this is not to deny that a particular anarthrous noun can at one
time be qualitative, another time be definite, and yet another be
> << What evidence do you
> have for a predicate nominative carrying simultaneous nuances
> of two or more, for example, QEOS in 1:1 being both qualitative
> and Indefinite? >>
> I believe we can both agree that nouns convey both a definite
> and an indefinite semantic in numerous instances. Right?
We agree a noun can convey definiteness, indefiniteness or
qualitativeness when used in different places. But, they cannot normally
convey more than one nuance at any given time (see above).
Am snipping the rest, as I believe I have dealt with the issues at hand.
If you feel otherwise, please indicate so.
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