Use of the article..

dixonps at juno.com dixonps at juno.com
Sat Jul 14 18:19:22 EDT 2001


Ted:

While the absence of a definite article does not imply the noun is not
definite, its presence does point us to a particular object.  Does a
definite article ever denote anything but definiteness?

I have no idea why the NIV renders it "a mountain."  Most translations do
translate the definite article in Mt 5:1 as "the."

Paul Dixon



On Sat, 14 Jul 2001 14:55:50 -0400 "Ted Mann" <theomann at earthlink.net>
writes:
> I know that the absence of an article in Greek does not necessarily 
> call for
> the use of the indefinite article in translation.  However, are 
> there
> occasions when it is reasonable (or at least acceptable) to use 
> either the
> definite or indefinite articles in translation when the Greek has 
> the
> definite article?  For example, in Mt. 5:1, I notice that the NIV 
> translates
> ANEBH EIS TO OROS as "..he went up on a mountainside.."  Does this
> accurately reflect the Greek, or would the readers of the gospel 
> have
> understood this to be "THE mountainside ("mountain," "hill," etc.)"?
> 
> Many thanks.
> 
> Ted
> Dr. Theodore H. Mann
> theomann at earthlink.net
> http://home.earthlink.net/~theomann
> 
> 
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Dr. Paul S. Dixon, Pastor
Evangelical Free Church
Iowa Falls, IA 
http://members.aol.com/dixonps



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