Philippians 1:6

Holly Vipond hollydawn at hotmail.com
Mon Sep 4 17:14:57 EDT 2000


On 09/04/00, "Mike Sangrey <mike at sojurn.lns.pa.us>" wrote:

*snip*

> So, my question is generally how one would translate this.
> Specifically, would
> 
>     "that the one who has begun a good work in you(pl) will continue to
>     complete it until the day of Christ Jesus"
> 
> or
>     "that the one who has begun a good work in you(pl) will continue until
>     he completes it at the day of Christ Jesus"

*snip*

Aren't the meanings of these two translations essentially the same? In both 
cases we are saying, "he began something then; he's continuing it now; it 
will be complete in the day of Jesus." I think that the understood meaning 
is the same in both translations, and I think that they are faithful to the 
text. The first one gives a more literal translation, while the second 
gives more clarity.

If there is a difference in meaning between the two, please expound :)

Holly



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