hollydawn at hotmail.com
Mon Sep 4 17:14:57 EDT 2000
On 09/04/00, "Mike Sangrey <mike at sojurn.lns.pa.us>" wrote:
> So, my question is generally how one would translate this.
> Specifically, would
> "that the one who has begun a good work in you(pl) will continue to
> complete it until the day of Christ Jesus"
> "that the one who has begun a good work in you(pl) will continue until
> he completes it at the day of Christ Jesus"
Aren't the meanings of these two translations essentially the same? In both
cases we are saying, "he began something then; he's continuing it now; it
will be complete in the day of Jesus." I think that the understood meaning
is the same in both translations, and I think that they are faithful to the
text. The first one gives a more literal translation, while the second
gives more clarity.
If there is a difference in meaning between the two, please expound :)
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