Was: "a question from a novice"
JAdkins264 at aol.com
Tue Mar 21 10:05:31 EST 2000
Dear Fellow B-Greek Members,
I just wanted to add to this whole discussion a personal note. The more I
learn about the Greek NT, the less it appears I know. I was taught in
Seminary 20+ years ago that AGAPH and FILEW were in most texts synonymous.
When the terms are contrasted, such as John 21, was the only time the
distinctive nature would be noticed. This distinctive, as I was taught,
was that one was love as an act or result of the will (AGAPH) and the other
(FILEW), love as an act or result of the emotions. Not that either term
was devoid of the other terms distinctive of intellect or emotion
altogether. The passage in the LXX (2 Kings 13:1) does not appear to
contradict this presupposition as the term is not being contrasted. Yet,
with the current discussion, I have found it difficult not to question the
confidence of my ignorance. While I have always been rather eccentric, and
have not always listened to my instructors, thinking they had the right to
be wrong, I may have let this one slip by me. I do find that absolutes are
becoming less apparent and that I too have the right to be wrong.
Always Under Grace!
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