Metaphors in Greek

Jonathan Ryder jpr1001 at cam.ac.uk
Tue Feb 23 14:21:52 EST 1999


Oops meant to send to list (sorry James)

>  William B. Steidtmann wrote:
> > >In "Figures of Speech Used in the Bible" by E.W. Bullinger (Baker Book
> > >House, Grand Rapids, Michigan) a disscussion of the phrase "this is my
> > >body" from Matthew 26:26 is taken up (pp. 738-739) as it relates to a
> > >"simple law of figurative language".  The argument is as follows:  the
> > >pronoun "this" in the Greek is TOUTO and the gender is neuter.  If the
> > >statement "this is my body" were meant to be taken in a literal sense the
> > >pronoun would have taken the gender of the noun it replaces which in this
> > >case is "bread", in the Greek ARTOS, and is masculine.  But the pronoun
> > >TOUTO is not masculine, rather it has taken the neuter gender of the noun
> > >"body" (SOMA) to which the meaning is "carried across" the verb.  This "at
> > >once shows us that a figure is employed" and is not meant to be taken
> > >literally; it is a metaphor.
> > >       Being a person who is but a "Little Greek" can anyone cite
> > >references/examples that would confirm/deny this law?
> >

> Carl W. Conrad replied:

> I'd like to see evidence for such a law, too? I really doubt seriously there is any
> such "law" --or that the reader is given any sort of  self-explanatory code to
> determine where the sense is literal and where it  is metaphorical.

> james m smith replied:

> Is it reasonable to assume that no such "law" exists?  Would it not be more
> profitable to exhibit obvious cases that would show its failure?  Many
> clear examples can be given to support this "law" but clear examples to
> disprove it are elusive.  Can anyone debunk this "law" citing unambiguous
> cases?  Please.

What are your many clear examples please James (or anyone else who cares to defend
this law)?

Thankyou

Jonathan Ryder





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