John 8:58 (I am, I have been, I was?)
grant at cajun.net
Wed Dec 22 12:19:50 EST 1999
The reason I decided to learn Greek (i think there was a topic a while back about this) is to learn all the legitimate interpretations of passages such as Philippians 2:6 (very much aware of this scripture now! ) and others. I would just like to say that B-Greek has helped me understand and look at scriptures in a way I never did before. I would just like to give a warm thanks to all who have corresponed with me. I know at time I can be a little stubborn though.
JOhn 8:58 "EIPEN AUTOIS IHSOUS AMHN AMHN LEGW hYMIN PRIN ABRAAM GENESQAI EGW EIMI"
I have read many variations in which some translate as "I am" while other seem to try to show an age rather than identity such as "I have been" or "I was."
From a scrictly grammatical standpoint, is "I have been" a correct rendering? Which English tense is closer to the Greek tense: the "I am" tense or the "I have been" tense?
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