behrman at email.unc.edu
Wed Dec 1 13:03:13 EST 1999
The reason I'm interested in GENNAW just now is because 1 Clement
quotes Ps. 2:7 (or, at least, quotes the quotation of Ps. 2:7 in Heb. 1).
Why *not* translate it: "You are my son, today I have given you birth"?
Is it only because we know that God is a man instead of a woman, and so
can't give birth? Seems like the logic of that could be pushed in lots of
directions (e.g., the pressure points: "know," "man," "and so"). But are
there other reasons?
-- Bart Ehrman
University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill
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