David Hoff davehoff at webname.com
Thu Apr 22 11:35:23 EDT 1999

Could anyone help resolve a statement in the preface of the "Pocket 
Interlinear New Testament" Jay P Green, Editor stating ....

(QUOTE)"1 Corinthians 16:1, the KJV has "churches," without any MSS support 
at all: the Greek has church".

I checked the Sinaiticus Codex and it has EKKLESIA not EKKLESIAIS as in 
UBS3 and NA26....I also noticed that the article is plural TAIS in the 

Did the scholars decide that EKKLESIA was a scribal error and decided on 
EKKLESIAIS, especially since the article is plural?

This has some significance in the fact that in the NT the churches in a 
region normally would be described in the plural as "churches" unless it is 
clear from context that the universal "church" is being addressed. Galatia, 
being a region and not a locality, should prompt a plural "churches".

Thank you for any clarification
David Hoff

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