jwest at Highland.Net
Thu Jun 25 11:15:33 EDT 1998
In a commentary I am presently reading, the author states at Mt 6:1 that
<gk> misthon</gk> means "a gift a father gives, not a wage the employer owes".
But in checking the lexicons I do not find this distinction made. Sure,
misthon means reward/wage- but is it accurate to say that in Mt 6:1 such a
sharp distinction can be made between reward and payment?
In short, would Matthew have understood reward as anything but a form of
payment for righteous deeds?
Jim West, ThD
Pastor, Petros Baptist Church
Adjunct Professor of Bible,
Quartz Hill School of Theology
jwest at highland.net
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