Angels in Hebrews
Trevor M Peterson
spedrson at juno.com
Mon Dec 7 15:42:01 EST 1998
On Mon, 7 Dec 1998 14:04:38 -0500 thmann at juno.com (Theodore H. Mann)
>I understand that the Hebrew has "God" instead of "angels," in
Well, strictly speaking, "God" and "angels" are English terms, so the
Hebrew has neither. But I presume that you mean the Hebrew has a word
that ought to be rendered "God." Even then, your statement needs some
clarification, because it is the Hebrew of Psalm 8, which the writer of
Hebrews is quoting, that would be an issue. Now then, having clarified
that, the Hebrew has Elohim, which is often translated as "God" in
English but also as "gods" and on a few occasions as "angels" (but I
don't know that it's entirely clear that the rendering as "angels" is
ever necessary). And yes, the writer of Hebrews is following the LXX in
this case (as he does so often).
>and that the term was translated "angels" in the LXX. Is
>this also true in 2:9? Many thanks.
I'm not quite sure what you mean here. All he seems to be doing in v. 9
is refering back to what he said in v. 7, so there's no other OT passage
in view here.
Washington Bible College
You don't need to buy Internet access to use free Internet e-mail.
Get completely free e-mail from Juno at http://www.juno.com/getjuno.html
or call Juno at (800) 654-JUNO [654-5866]
More information about the B-Greek